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Basic Question 1 of 6
Packstone Inc. owns a subsidiary in England. The subsidiary's functional currency is the pound. Therefore, translation is necessary in order to prepare consolidated financial statements. The subsidiary began 2004 with 500,000 pounds in cash and no other assets or liabilities. On March 1, the subsidiary used 100,000 pounds to purchase equipment. On April 20, the subsidiary used cash to purchase merchandise inventory costing 80,000 pounds. This merchandise was sold on May 16 for 120,000 pounds in cash. On November 1, the subsidiary paid a cash dividend to Packstobe in the amount of 60,000 pounds and recorded depreciation on the equipment for the year of 50,000 pounds. The appropriate exchange rates were as follows (spot rate = USD/Pound):
What is the translation adjustment to be reported in the stockholders' equity section of the consolidated balance sheet under the all-current method?
User Contributed Comments 22
| User | Comment |
|---|---|
| aero | How do i find 430???? |
| aero | Ok I find, and how about depreciation???? |
| billou | depreciation does not change net assets |
| malina | Can somebody explain how do we get 430K?, and next why are we using the rate of 1.54 for depreciation expense and how did we calculate it? |
| Xiaochao | y use 1.54 for depreciation? |
| lockedin | 500,000 + (120,000 - 80,000) - 60,000 - 50,000 = 430,000. Don't know where 1.54 came from... |
| robbjm30 | believe 1.54 is an error, think should be 1.53 since that was day depreciation was recorded on |
| PaulChia | i think the rate for depreciation should be 1.50 since the equipment was purchased on March 01. Does anybody know the answer for sure? |
| yly14 | 1.54 is the average exchange from the acquiring of the equipment at 1.52 to the ending exchange at 1.56. |
| PhiWong | The only dispute here was the depreciation rate use should be, an average of 1.5 and 1.56, at 1.53 fx rate. The machine acquired on the March 1 NOT Apr 20. The final fx adj balance will be (670,000 - 740,000 + 106,300) 37,100. |
| ehc0791 | focus on net asset: holding gains: 500K(1.56 - 1.48) = 40K net asset changes during the year: 70K(=430 - 500) the flow effect: -70K(1.6 - 1.56) = -2.8K total gain = 40k-2.8k = 37.2K |
| seemabose | Translation Adjustment = (End. Cash Bal.) - (Beg Cash Bal. + Gain on Sales - Dep. Exp. - Div. Paid) = (430,000x1.56) - {(500,000x1.48) + (40,000x1.55) - (50,000x(1.56+1.50)/2) - (60,000x1.53)} = 37,100 CR |
| Yurik74 | My guess for 1.54 rate is that it's weighted average: 1.50*(20 April - 1 March)+1.52*(16 May - 20 April)+ .... Then diveded by 305 (31 Dec - 1 Mar). Final result is 1.535311, rounding gives 1.54 |
| Leese | Am I missing something? Why is the cash balance translated at the historical rate and not the current rate? Aren't we using the all current method? |
| REITboy | Why aren't we using the 4/20 rate for COGS and the 5/16 rate for Sales? = -80(1.52) + 120(1.55) = 64,400 We have specific dates for acquisition of inventory and subsequent sales -- why not use them since we can use historical or average rates for sales & inventory costs. |
| joywind | I guess the reason behind 1.55 for the gain is that: sales & COGS can be seen together to use the gain from the transaction with the rate the transaction of the gain is from. Although i am concerned about this misleading way to combine them. I guess this is probably some sort of convention? |
| swt326 | I'm also confused on why we translated cash at historical rate, is it because that is our beginning cash balance? |
| philjoe | the gross profit calculation doesn't make sense. merchandise was purchased on different date than it was sold, so shouldn't we use two exchange rates? |
| daverco | 430,000 = 500,000 (cash) + 120,000 (sale for cash) - 80,000 (inventory sold) - 60,000 (dividend) - 50,000 (depreciation) |
| MOARMIXE | Income Statement items are translated at the average exchange rate unless you have a transaction recorded on a specific date. The depreciation charge uses the average the year, or in this case since the fixed asset was purchased (1.5 (purchase date) + 1.56)/2 = 1.54 |
| MOARMIXE | Ignore my comment... |
| davidt876 | phill joe, the purchase of an asset with cash doesn't change the overall value of net assets. one asset (cash) just gets converted into another asset (inventory). so you use the rate on the day you sold the inventory - because that's when additional cash came in depreciation threw me. thought (still think) it should be end rate? what about where only assets (net of depreciation) are shown? |
I passed! I did not get a chance to tell you before the exam - but your site was excellent. I will definitely take it next year for Level II.
Tamara Schultz
Learning Outcome Statements
compare the current rate method and the temporal method, evaluate how each affects the parent company's balance sheet and income statement, and determine which method is appropriate in various scenarios;
calculate the translation effects and evaluate the translation of a subsidiary's balance sheet and income statement into the parent company's presentation currency;
CFA® 2025 Level II Curriculum, Volume 2, Module 12.