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Basic Question 4 of 6
Equity can be viewed as a call option on a firm's assets. True or False?
User Contributed Comments 18
User | Comment |
---|---|
anita | call option is an option to buy a security at predetermined price .. |
yanpz | Why it's true? |
george2006 | X=0, T=infinity |
tanyak | how can there predetermined price on equity? |
omer123 | Option is an instrument which derives it value from the underlying asset, which in true essence is what equity is, since it derives it value from the financial health of a firms assets. |
bobert | As anita said, "call option is an option to buy a security at predetermined price .." This makes the statement true because if you buy a call option, you have essentily reserved the right to purchase a stock (for example) at that determined price. Branching off of what omer123 and george2006 said, if you own the stock today, you have have a predetermined price (the price you bought at) worth of ownership in the underlying company. The price of the stock may rise, but you still have the same ownership at a lower price. (assuming the stock has not since been diluted. But do not think that far into it) |
jainrajeshv | Well explained by bobert |
tgeorg | but no specified expiration date |
NavdeepS | george , T= infinity or in case of a US bank hobbled with subprime assets , t= time until insolvency or a government bailout ;) |
asthildur | The pioneers of option pricing were Fischer Black, Myron Scholes, and Robert Merton. In the early 1970s, they showed that options can be used to characterize the capital structure of a company. Today this model is widely used by financial institutions to assess a company's credit risk. To illustrate the model, consider a company that has assets that are financed with zero-coupon bonds and equity. Suppose that the bonds mature in 5 years at which time a principal payment of K is required. The company pays no dividends. If the assets are worth more than K in 5 years, the equity holders choose to repay the bondholders. If the assets are worth less than. K, the equity holders choose to declare bankruptcy and the bondholders end up owning the company. The value of the equity in 5 years is therefore max(AT - K, 0), where AT is the _value of the company's assets at that time. This shows that the equity holders have a 5-year European call option on the assets of the company with a strike price of K. What about the bondholders? They get min(AT , K) in 5 years. This is the same as K - max(K - AT, 0). The bondholders have given the equity holders the right to sell the'company's assets to them for K in 5 years. The bonds are therefore worth the present value of K minus the value of a 5-year European put option on the assets with a strike price of K. To summarize, if c and p are the value of the call and put options, respectively, then: Value of equity = c, Value of debt = PV(K) - P Denote the value of the assets of the company today by Ao. The value of the assets must equal the total value of the instruments used to finance the assets. This means that it must equal the sum of the value of the equity and the value of the debt, so that Ao= c+[PV(K) - p] Rearranging this equation, we ~ave c + PV(K) = p + Ao This is the put-call parity |
asthildur | nb.. information where obtained from Hull: Option, Futures and Other derivatives. |
viannie | Equity = call option on a company's assets Asset = Liability + Equity |
anastasiya | Equity is no contingent claim. it is a residual claim on a company's assets - see the comment of viannie. There is nothing contingent in equity. |
vinooka | Thanks Asthildur! Very well explained. |
johntan1979 | Companies can repurchase outstanding shares... that's it and that's all there is to understand. |
sauresh | Well explained johntan 1979! |
Shaan23 | Johntan is great. |
anandstudy | In India, under Section 77 of the Companies Act, 1956, no company had the power to buy its own shares unless it was by way of reduction of share capital. The provisions regulating buy back of shares are contained in Section 77A, 77AA and 77B of the Companies Act,1956. With effect from 1st April 2014, sections 68, 69 and 70 of the Companies Act, 2013 (“the new act”) provide for the buy-back of securities in place of sections 77A, 77AA and 77B of the Companies Act, 1956 In my view, the explanation given by Johntan needs further elaboration. Assume for a moment that repurchase was not permitted, is the explanation still correct ? The rational cannot change before and after the change in the enactment. |
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Learning Outcome Statements
define a derivative and describe basic features of a derivative instrument
CFA® 2024 Level I Curriculum, Volume 5, Module 1.