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Basic Question 12 of 13
John, an independent board member of company A, borrows $1 million from A at the prevailing market rate of 5.6% to finance his own independent start-up company. Should this situation be considered an appropriate corporate governance practice?
B. No, because this is a related party transaction.
C. No, because this creates a conflict of interest.
A. Yes, as he pays the prevailing interest rate.
B. No, because this is a related party transaction.
C. No, because this creates a conflict of interest.
User Contributed Comments 5
| User | Comment |
|---|---|
| zeiad | any appearance of conflict of interest shoud be avoided |
| abhinavkapoor | what if the company's nature of business is lending funds, such as banks? would the same rule apply then? Can sombody confirm? |
| johntan1979 | That's even worse. |
| SalimBouch | worse? why? if he got the market interest rate? |
| Inaganti6 | Probably because in this case it could be the company's money whereas with a bank theres a high chance it has origins from public deposits. |
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Learning Outcome Statements
evaluate the effectiveness of a company's corporate governance policies and practices;
CFA® 2025 Level II Curriculum, Volume 3, Module 17.